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At Galaxy Imaging & Path Lab, we focus our highest attention to the importance of precision in laboratory operations. Thereby Galaxy Imaging & Path Lab has chosen the best of quality equipment to meet your requirements. Our team of pathologists and technical staff verify the results of every sample, and continually monitor and implement quality checks to ensure the highest precision for your testing.
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TEST NAME | VIALS | TEST CONDITION | USES |
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CBC: HB TLC, DLC, PLT, MCV, MCHC, HCT, WBC, RBC, PCV, MCH |
EDTA | CBC provides information about red cells, white cells and platelets. Used to detect a wide range of disorders, including anaemia, infection and leukaemia. | |
COMPLETE HAEMOGRAM: CBC, ESR, Peripheral Smear |
EDTA | FASTING PREF for ESR | ESR acts as an acute phase reactant, which indicates presence and intensity of an inflammatory process. It is never diagnostic of a specific disease. It is used to monitor the course or response to treatment of certain diseases. Extremely high levels are found in cases of malignancy, hematologic diseases, collagen disorders and renal diseases. |
CBC WITH ESR: CBC, ESR |
EDTA | FASTING | |
HAEMOGLOBIN: HB |
EDTA | Haemoglobin levels are used to diagnose type and degree of anaemia. Several factors like age, sex, pregnancy and diurnal variations are to be considered before diagnosis of anaemia. | |
PLATELET: PLT |
EDTA | ||
TLC: TOTAL LEUCOCYTE COUNT |
EDTA | ||
DLC: TOTAL LEUCOCYTE COUNT |
EDTA | ||
DLC: DIFFERNTIAL LEUCOCYTE COUNT |
EDTA | ||
HIV: HIV I AND II |
PLAIN | Patient consent on HIV Consent form | HIV virus causes Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS). EIA is a screening test for HIV infection with a sensitivity of >99.9%. As per NACO guidelines, all reactive samples are tested by three different methods prior to release of report. |
HBSAG: HEPATITIS B SURFACE ANTIGEN AUSTRALIA ANTIGEN |
PLAIN | It is useful for the diagnosis of acute, recent and chronic HBV infection. It also determines the chronic Hepatitis B infection status. It is the first serologic marker to appear in the serum at 6 to 16 weeks following exposure to HBV. | |
VDRL: RAPID PLASMA REAGIN |
PLAIN | RPR is used as a screening test for Syphilis. It is also used for following the progression of disease and response to therapy. | |
ANTI HCV: HEPATITIS C ANTIBODY |
PLAIN | HCV is the most common cause of Post transfusion hepatitis. HCV antibodies usually appear in the late convalescent stage >6 months after onset of infection. This assay is the screening test for resolved or chronic HCV. | |
LFT:(LIVER FUNCTION TEST) BILRUBIN DIRECT, BILRUBIN INDIRECT, SGOT, SGPT, ALKALINE PHOSPHATE, TOTAL PROTEIN, ALBUMIN |
PLAIN | Assesses the functional activity of the liver. It is used for screening for liver damage, especially if someone has a condition or is taking a drug that may affect the liver. | |
SGOT ASPARTATE AMINOTRANSFERASE (AST) |
This enzyme is found in many organs including the liver. This is a more sensitive test in alcoholic liver disease than SGPT. | ||
SGPT ALANINE AMINOTRANSFERASE (ALT) |
Its measurement is clinically useful in the diagnosis of liver and biliary disease. | ||
TOTAL PROTEIN |
Total Protein is useful in evaluating patients for nutritional status, liver disease, protein losing renal and gastrointestinal diseases. High levels are seen in patients with Monoclonal gammopathies, Autoimmune hepatitis and inflammation. | ||
KFT:(KIDNEY FUNCTION TEST) UREA, CREATININE, URIC ACID, TOTAL PROTEIN, ALBUMIN, CA, NA, K, CL |
PLAIN | FASTING PREF | |
SERUM UREA |
PLAIN | Urea is the end product of protein metabolism. It reflects on the functioning of the kidney in the body |
|
SERUM CREATININE |
PLAIN | Creatinine is the product of creatine metabolism. It is a measure of renal function and elevated levels are observed in patients typically with 50% or greater impairment of renal function. | |
SERUM URIC ACID |
PLAIN | Uric Acid is the end product of protein metabolism. High levels are seen with Gout, inherited metabolic disorders of purine metabolism, excessive purine dietary intake and increased cell turnover. Only 10-15% patients with hyperuricemia have Gout. | |
ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE; ALP |
FASTING PREF | Majority of ALP activity is derived from the liver and bone. Concentrations are increased in patients with biliary obstructive disorders, tumours of liver and bone etc | |
CALCIUM, SERUM |
FASTING PREF | Calcium imbalance may cause a spectrum of diseases. High concentrations are seen in Hyperparathyroidism, malignancy and Sarcoidosis. Low levels may be due to protein deficiency, renal insufficiency and hypoparathyroidism. | |
SERUM ELECTROLYTE Na, K, CL |
Electrolyte panel is useful in assessing acid base balance in a wide variety of medical conditions | ||
LIPID PROFILE: CHOLESTEROL, TRIGYLCERIDES, HDL, LDL |
PLAIN | FASTING | Cardiovascular disease is the top cause of death leading to heart attacks and strokes, many in individuals who have no prior symptoms. Prevention of ischemic cardiovascular events is key. Risk factors including age, smoking status, hypertension, diabetes, cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol are used by physicians to identify individuals likely to have an ischemic event & to evaluate cardiovascular risk. |
TOTAL CHOLESTROL |
PLAIN | Increasing concentrations of Total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol are both correlated with increasing risk of cardiovascular disease. | |
TRIGLYCERIDE, SERUM |
FASTING | Increased triglyceride levels are indicative of metabolic abnormality. High levels may be seen in Biliary obstruction, Diabetes, Nephrotic syndrome, Renal failure, Metabolic endocrinopathies. | |
HDL |
PLAIN | Good Cholesterol. used to assess the risk of Coronary artery disease (CAD). It is inversely related to the risk of CAD. For every 1 mg/dL decrease in HDL risk of CAD increases by 2–3%. | |
LDL |
PLAIN | Bad Cholesterol. Used to assess the risk of CAD and to decide the treatment. Its increase is directly related with the risk of CAD. | |
TFT T3 T4 TSH |
PLAIN | FASTING | Total thyroid hormone levels include the free as well as the bound form and hence may not reflect the active unbound form of the hormone which is directly related to thyroid dysfunction. Factors affecting the thyroid binding globulin will alter various parameters and may not be a true indicator of primary thyroid disease. |
FREE THYROID: FT3, FT4, TSH |
PLAIN | FASTING | Assays detecting unbound or free form of thyroid hormones are highly sensitive to detect thyroid dysfunction. They reflect the active form of the hormone, unaffected by non-thyroidal factors. Use of TSH alone as a screening test may be misleading, hence simultaneous measurement of free T3 & T4 are important. TSH should not be used as an isolated laboratory test to assess thyroid function specially in patients with suspected or known pituitary disease. |
TSH: THYROID STIMULATING HARMONE |
PLAIN | FASTING | TSH is an early indicator of decreased thyroid reserve. This assay helps to diagnose hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism |
ANTI THYROID PEROXIDASE ANTIBODY; ANTI TPO |
TPO antibody levels is the most sensitive test for detecting autoimmune thyroid disease like Hashimoto thyroiditis (90%), Idiopathic myxoedema and Graves’ disease (60-80%). It helps in the diagnosis of thyroid autoimmune disorders and serves as a diagnostic tool in deciding therapy for subclinical hypothyroidism. | ||
VITAMIN B12: CYANOCOBALAMIN |
PLAIN | FASTING PRF | Vitamin B12 is necessary for haematopoiesis and normal neuronal function. B12 deficiency may be due to lack of intrinsic factor secretion by gastric mucosa (gastrectomy, gastric atrophy) or intestinal malabsorption (ileal resection, small intestinal diseases) leading to Macrocytic anaemia. |
VITAMIN D: 25 OH HYDROXY |
PLAIN | 25-Hydroxy vitamin D represents the main body reservoir and transport form. Mild to moderate deficiency is associated with Osteoporosis / Secondary Hyperparathyroidism while severe deficiency causes Rickets in children and Osteomalacia in adults. Prevalence of Vitamin D deficiency is approximately >50% specially in the elderly. | |
WIDAL SLIDE: TYPHI O, TYPHI PH, TYHI AH, TYPHI BH |
PLAIN | Widal test is used to diagnose Typhoid and Paratyphoid fevers. A 4 fold rise in titer is diagnostic of infection | |
MALARIA PARASITE: |
EDTA | Malaria is a protozoan parasitic infection, prevalent in subtropical and tropical parts of the world. This test helps in species identification. It also detects other hemiparasites if present. | |
TYPHIDOT IGG AND IGM: REACTIVE / ON-REACTIVE |
PLAIN | TYPHI IGM serves as a marker for recent infections. This test detects the presence of IgM antibodies to S.typhi. The conventional Widal test detects antibodies to S.typhi from 2nd week of onset of symptoms. | |
NS I DENGUE: NSI ANTIGEN RAPID SERUM |
PLAIN | This test is used for the qualitative detection of Dengue Virus NS1 antigen as an aid to the diagnosis of Acute Dengue infection. NS1 antigen is a non-structural protein found in infected patients from 1st day of fever up to 5 days after the onset of fever. | |
DENGUE IGG & IGM ELISA: IGM ANTIBODIES, IGG ANITIBODIES |
PLAIN | Dengue Haemorrhagic Fever and Dengue Shock Syndrome are caused by infection of RNA Flavivirus transmitted by a mosquito vector. This test differentiates between Primary and Secondary infection. Paired acute and convalescent specimens that exhibit a significant change in titer are useful to confirm clinical diagnosis of infection | |
IRON STUDIES: TOTAL IRON BINDINGS (TIBC), TRANFERRIN SATURATION INDEX, SERUM TRANSFERRIN LEVEL, FERRITIN. Serum unsaturated iron binding capacity (UIBC) |
PLAIN + EDTA | FASING PREFAvoid iron supplements for minimum 7 days prior to specimen collection. | Serum iron, TIBC & Percent saturation are widely used for the diagnosis of Iron deficiency. Total Iron Binding capacity (TIBC) is a direct measure of the protein Transferrin which transports iron from the gut to storage sites in the bone marrow. In iron deficiency anaemia, serum iron is reduced and TIBC increases. Percent saturation is usually normal or increased in Iron deficiency, Pregnancy & intake of oral contraceptives. Low TIBC is seen in Chronic inflammatory conditions, Hemochromatosis & Malignancies. Serum ferritin is a more sensitive & reliable indicator of Iron deficiency. |
FERRITIN |
Ferritin levels reflect iron stoes in normal individuals. A low serum ferritin level is an indicator of iron depletion. This assay is clinically useful in distinguishing between Iron deficiency anaemia (low level) and anaemia of chronic disease (normal or high level). It is also useful to assess iron overload conditions like Hemochromatosis. | ||
LH & FSH LUTEINIZING HARMONE FOLLICLE STIMULATING HARMONE |
PLAIN | FASTING preferred sampling time is Day 2 / Day 3 of the menstrual cycle Specify day of menstrual cycle |
with suspected hypogonadism, predicts ovulation, evaluates infertility and helps in diagnosing pituitary disorders. Primary hypogonadism results in elevated levels of basal LH & FSH. LH is decreased in Primary ovarian hyperfunction in females |
PRL: PROLACTIN, SERUM |
PLAIN | FASTING | It is a useful aid in the evaluation of Pituitary tumours, Amenorrhea, Galactorrhoea, Infertility & Hypogonadism. It also helps in monitoring therapy in prolactin producing tumours. |
E2: ESTRADIOL |
PLAIN | FASTING | It is useful for evaluating hypogonadism and oligomenorrhea in females. It assesses ovarian status including follicle development for in vitro fertilization. It is also useful in monitoring low dose female hormone replacement therapy in post-menopausal women and for monitoring anti-estrogen therapy. |
PROGESTERONE: P4 (PROGESTERONE) |
PLAIN | FASTING | It is useful for ascertaining whether ovulation occurred in a menstrual cycle. It helps to evaluate placental function in pregnancy and maybe used in the workup of patients with Adrenal / Testicular tumours. |
TESTESTERONE, TOTAL : |
PLAIN | It is useful for evaluation of men with signs and symptoms of possible Hypogonadism like loss of libido, erectile dysfunction, gynecomastia & infertility. It is also useful in evaluation of boys with delayed or precocious puberty. The assay can be used to monitor anti- androgen therapy as in prostate cancer, precocious puberty & male to female transgender disorders. | |
DHEA-S DEHYDROEPIANDROSTERONE SULPHATE |
FASTING | useful in identification of androgen secreting adrenal tumours specially Adrenal carcinomas. It is an adjunct in the diagnosis of Congenital adrenal hyperplasia. It is also useful in the diagnosis of Premature adrenarche. | |
INSULIN FASTING: INSULINE FASTING |
PLAIN | FASTING | Insulin is produced by beta cells of the pancreas. It leads to Type 1 (IDDM) diabetes caused by Insulin deficiency & Type 2 (NIDDM) diabetes caused by insulin resistance. This assay is useful in the management of Diabetes. |
INSULIN PP: INSULIN PP |
PLAIN | SAMPLE 2 HOURS POST MEAL | Insulin is produced by beta cells of the pancreas. It leads to Type 1 (IDDM) diabetes caused by Insulin deficiency & Type 2 (NIDDM) diabetes caused by insulin resistance. This assay is useful in the anagement of Diabetes. |
BETA HCG: Human chorionic gonadotropin level |
PLAIN | It is used for diagnosing pregnancy and aids in the investigation of suspected ectopic pregnancy. It is also used for monitoring in vitro fertilization patients. | |
DOUBLE MARKER TEST: TRISOMY 21 SCREENING, AGE RISK, AFP, UE3, HCG, INHIBIN A |
PLAIN | between 9-13 weeks of pregnancyFor Combined Risk Assessment (Biochemical risk + Nuchal translucency)kindly enclose Ultrasound report between 11-13 weeks gestation including CRL, NT & Nasal Bone. Provide maternal Date of birth (dd/mm/yy); LMP or Ultrasound; Number of Fetuses (Single/Twins); Diabetic status and Body Weight in Kg, IVF, Smoking & Previous history of Trisomy 21 pregnancy. | This test has significant utility in First trimester Prenatal Screening of Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21), and other chromosomal anomalies. The false positive rate is 5% but the detection of Down Syndrome is as high as 85-90%. |
TRIPPLE MARKER TEST: TRISOMY 21 SCREENING, AGE RISK, AFP, UE3, HCG |
PLAIN | between 14-22 weeks gestation (Ideal 15-20 weeks) | The Triple Screen test is used for Prenatal Screening of Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21), Edward’s Syndrome (Trisomy 18) and Open Neural Tube Defects. The approximate detection rate with this test is 55–65% with a false positive rate of 5%. |
QUADRUPLE MARKER TEST: TRISOMY 21 SCREENING, AGE RISK, AFP, UE3, HCG, INHIBIN A |
PLAIN | between 14-22 weeks gestation (Ideal 15-20 weeks)Provide maternal Date of birth (dd/mm/yy); LMP or Ultrasound; IVF, Number of Fetuses (Single/ Twins); Diabetic status and Body Weight in Kg, Smoking & Previous history of Trisomy 21 pregnancy | The Quadruple test is used for Prenatal Screening of Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21), Edward’s Syndrome (Trisomy 18) and Open Neural Tube Defects. The approximate detection rate with this test is 75-80 % with a false positive rate of 5%. |
TORCH PROFILE IGM & IGG HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS (HSV) 1+2, IgG/IgM CYTOMEGALOVIRUS (CMV) ANTIBODY, IgM RUBELLA (GERMAN MEASLES) ANTIBODY, IgM TOXOPLASMA ANTIBODY, IgM/ IgG |
Used for quantitative detection of specific IgG antibodies to TORCH in serum samples. Positive result indicates past infection with TORCH. Pregnant females with positive TORCH specific IgG antibodies are considered to be immune and hence risk of transmission of infection to foetus is minimal. Negative result indicates person has not been exposed to TORCH in the past. Pregnant females with negative TORCH specific IgG antibodies are considered at risk of transmission of infection to foetus. A suspected diagnosis of acute TORCH infection should be confirmed by PCR analysis or repeat test after 10-14 days. | ||
RUBELLA ANTIBODY, IgM (GERMAN MEASLES) |
IgM Antibody to Rubella may indicate acute, recent infection, or vaccination. Congenitally infected infants will show an IgM response at 2 to 12 weeks postnatally | ||
GCT 75 GRAM: (SUGAR LEVEL) GULCOSE CHALLENGE TEST |
FLORIDE | SAMPLE 2 HOURS after oral administratio n of 75 gm glucose. | It is A ‘’Single-step procedure” developed by DIPSI to diagnose Gestational Diabetes. due to the practical difficulty in performing glucose tolerance test in the fasting state |
GTT 75 GRAM: (SUGAR LEVEL) GULCOSE TOLERANCE TEST |
FLORIDE | FASTING, SAMPLE 2 HOURS AFTER GLUCOSE INTAKE | This test is recommended in pregnant women at 24-28 weeks of gestation not previously diagnosed with overt Diabetes. A diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes mellitus is made if any one of the following values is exceeded: fasting is > 92 mg/dL, 1 hour is >180 mg/dL and 2 hours is >153 mg/dL. |
BLOOD SUGAR FASTING, PP: |
FLORIDE | FASTING, SAMPLE 2 HOURS AFTER EATING BREAKFAST |
Glucose determinations are useful in the detection and management of Diabetes mellitus |
BLOOD SUGAR RANDOM: |
FLORIDE | In a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycaemia or hyperglycaemic crises, a random plasma glucose >200 mg/dL confirms Diabetes mellitus. | |
HBAIC: GLYCOSYLATED HEMOGLOBIN 3 MONTHS RECORD OF SUGAR |
EDTA | It is useful for diagnosing Diabetes and evaluating long term control of blood glucose concentrations in diabetic patients. It reflects the mean glucose concentration over the previous period of 8 to 12 weeks and is a better indicator of long-term glycaemic control as compared with blood glucose levels due to lesser day to day variation. | |
ANTI PHOSPHOLIPID IGG: ANTI PHOSPHOLIPID ANTI BODY IGG |
PLAIN | ||
ANTI PHOSPHOLIPID IGM: ANTI PHOSPHOLIPID ANTI BODY IGM |
PLAIN | ||
ANTI PHOSPHOLIPID IGA: ANTI PHOSPHOLIPID ANTI BODY IGA |
PLAIN | ||
PAP SMEAR: PARTIALLY AIRDRIED CELLULAR, ATYPICAL OR MALIGANT CELL SEEN IN THE SMEAR STUDIED |
SLIDE | Take brief clinical history.
|
Screening with Papanicolaou has substantially reduced the mortality rate due to Cervical cancer. Screening guidelines recommend regular PAP testing for all women greater than 21 years of age. At age 30, women who have had 3 normal test results in a row may get screened every 2 to 3 years. Women between 65-70 years with no abnormal results in the previous 10 years can stop screening. Women after Total hysterectomy for non-cancerous causes do not require screening. |
LIQUID PAP SMEAR: |
LBC CONTAINER | ||
CA125: CA 125 OVARIAN CANCER MARKER |
PLAIN | Take brief clinical history | Elevated CA 125 levels are seen in many patients with cancer of the ovary. The percentage of positive cases increases with stage of the cancer. This assay is useful for evaluating patient's response to ovarian cancer therapy. |
CA 19.9: PANCREATIC CANCER MARKER TEST |
PLAIN | Take brief clinical history | CA 19.9 is useful to monitor the response to treatment and if elevated suggests recurrence in patients with Pancreatic Cancer. Elevated concentrations are not specific. |
HLA-B27 |
HLA B 27 positivity is associated with Ankylosing spondylosis and other diseases like Reiter’s syndrome, Anterior uveitis, Salmonella/Yersinia/ Psoriatic/Juvenile Chronic Arthritis, Spondylitis with Inflammatory Bowel Disease. | ||
BLOOD CULTURE: AEROBIC BACTERIA, BLOOD CULTURE AND SENSITIVITY |
BLOOD CULTURE BOTTLE | Rapid automated cultures can identify the organisms earlier and with increased sensitivity as compared to conventional culture. On identification of the organism, antibiotic susceptibilities are performed that aid in selection of appropriate antibiotic for treatment. | |
TTG (IGA): TISSUE TRANSGLUTAMINASE (tTG) ANTIBODY |
PLAIN | useful in evaluating patients with Celiac disease including those with compatible symptoms, atypical symptoms and individuals at increased risk like positivity for HLA DQ2 / DQ8. It is also used as a screening test for Dermatitis herpetiformis. The test monitors adherence to gluten free diet. | |
HPLC: HB-ELECTROPHORESIS Hbf, AIc, P3, A0, A2, HPD, S-WINDOW, C- WINDOW, E-WINDOW, UNKOWN UNIDENTIFIED, OTHER (SPECIFIC) |
EDTA | Useful in the diagnosis of Beta Thalassemia. It quantitates the percent of foetal haemoglobin and assists in the diagnosis of disorders with elevated levels of HbF. | |
COOMBS TEST, DIRECT |
Direct Coombs test detects IgG and Complement bound to erythrocytes. The test is useful in diagnosing patients with Haemolytic disease of the new born and Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia. Drug induced antibodies may give false positive reactions. | ||
COOMBS TEST, INDIRECT |
Indirect Coombs Test is used to identify red blood cell IgG antibodies that can cross the placenta and cause Haemolytic disease of the new born. | ||
MANTOUX TEST; TUBERCULIN SKIN TEST |
TUBERCULIN SKIN TEST | ||
TB GOLD: TBAG, ELISA |
HEPRRIN | This test is a measure of cell mediated immune response to antigens simulating the mycobacterial proteins. A positive result indicates that mycobacterium tuberculosis infection is likely but further medical & diagnostic evaluation is necessary. This test is usually negative in individuals vaccinated with Mycobacterium bovis BCG. | |
PTINR: PROTHOMBIN TIME, CONTROL TIME AND INR |
SODIUM CITRATE | FASTING PREF
|
Prothrombin Time assesses the extrinsic and common coagulation pathway from Factor VII through fibrin formation. Results are interpreted based on INR. A prolonged INR suggests a potential bleeding disorder or if on warfarin therapy, a potential for bleeding complications. |
APTT: CONTROL TIME(APTT) |
SODIUM CITRATE | FASTING PREF
|
|
ANTI CCP: (Anti Cyclic Citrullinated Peptide) * |
PLAIN | Anti CCP is useful in diagnosing Rheumatoid arthritis and entities that may potentially be confused with Rheumatoid arthritis that are rheumatoid factor positive | |
Rheumatoid Factor*- Quantitative: RF FACTOR |
PLAIN | Approximately 85% of patients with Rheumatoid arthritis have detectable RA. It may also be seen in other medical conditions like Sjogren’s syndrome and SLE. | |
C-REACTIVE PROTEIN; CRP |
FASTING | C Reactive Protein (CRP) is the most sensitive acute phase reactant for inflammation. The levels increase dramatically (100 fold or more) after severe trauma, bacterial infection, surgery and neoplastic proliferation. This assay is useful in detecting systemic inflammatory process and infection. It assesses response to antibiotic treatment and differentiates between active and inactive disease forms with concurrent infection. | |
URINE ROUTINE: COLOR, SPECIFIC GRAVITY, PH, PROTEIN, SUGAR, KETONES, PUS CELLS EPITHELIAL CELLS, RED BLOOD CELLS, CASTS, CRYSTALS |
URINE CONTAINER | It is one of the most useful laboratory tests as it identifies a wide range of medical conditions including renal damage, urinary tract infections, diabetes, hypertension and drug toxicity. | |
URINE CULTURE: PUS CELLS, EPITHILEAL CELLS |
CULTURE BOTTLE | FRESH MORNING URINE | Common organisms isolated are E. coli, Klebsiella, S.saprophyticus, S.aureus, Enterococcus, Proteus and Pseudomonas. When an organism is isolated, antibiotic sensitivities are performed to guide antibiotic selection. |
STOOL ROUTINE |
Do not send stool specimens in match boxes or absorbent material for sample collection | It is used to detect parasitic infections and the physical characteristics of stool aid in the diagnosis of gastrointestinal infections. | |
STOOL CULTURE |
Common organisms causing gastroenteritis are Salmonella and Shigella. Antibiotic sensitivities are performed to guide antibiotic selection. | ||
SEMEN ANALYSIS: (SEMINOGRAM) QUANTITY, COLOR, VISCOSITY, REACTION, LIQUEFACTION, ACTIVE MOTILE, SLUGGISH MOTILE, DEAD SPERMS |
SEMEN BOTTLE | Patient should refrain from ejaculation 3 days prior to collection. Condoms are not acceptable |
Helps in determining male fertility status. Male infertility can be due to decrease in the number of viable sperms, abnormal sperm morphology and abnormalities of the seminal fluid. |